tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8291620875524102366.post3492549926255504369..comments2024-02-15T12:09:26.361+00:00Comments on Kevin J.Bidwell: Fallacy Number 3: Baptism must be by immersion or dippingKevin Bidwellhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/11098663879570603771noreply@blogger.comBlogger3125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8291620875524102366.post-80690229862895129692014-02-04T16:22:15.573+00:002014-02-04T16:22:15.573+00:00Marius, I always like questions on the blog becaus...Marius, I always like questions on the blog because if one person asks, then others are likely to be asking a similar question. Here are a few brief comments for consideration.<br /><br />1. In Matthew 3:5 we learn that many came from Jerusalem and all Judea and they were baptised in the River Jordan while confessing their sins. A river clearly has plenty of water and water would be needed in plenty for large numbers.<br /><br />2. When we make the link with ceremonial washing then it may have been some form of ceremonial washing, which would have needed a fair amount of water; we do not know except it was in the River Jordan. <br /><br />3. There is a difference between writing that is descriptive and then what is prescriptive. In Acts Chapter 2 it is described that Christian's shared all things in common but this is not prescriptive for all time. When we do not carefully and responsibly make the distinction it can cause problems for people in the church. Plentiful water is descriptive not prescriptive for all time.<br /><br />4. Why not use a well? This would be socially and economically unwise. Firstly, how could women draw water for their families if it was crowded by perhaps hundreds of people. Besides men and women did not mix in such a situation. To block the well would have been bad practice.<br /><br />5. I am sure that you know this, but we are still discussing John's baptism of repentance which is not the Christian baptism authorised by Jesus. Water is needed for Christian baptism but the mode is never specified.<br /><br />Warmly,<br /><br />Kevin BKevin Bidwellhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/11098663879570603771noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8291620875524102366.post-70774831275447846632014-02-03T16:45:55.329+00:002014-02-03T16:45:55.329+00:00Why does John 3:23 record that there was "ple...Why does John 3:23 record that there was "plentiful" water there? If John had baptized by sprinkling or pouring couldn't he have done this at any well using a bucket? M. Wahrlichhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/07685562687742156956noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8291620875524102366.post-52693592925884665642014-02-03T16:42:02.524+00:002014-02-03T16:42:02.524+00:00This comment has been removed by the author.M. Wahrlichhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/07685562687742156956noreply@blogger.com